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Wednesday, December 23, 2009

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Hide the decline.

There's a reason why people are turning away from CNN in droves.

sorry, but you don't understand what oversampling is. The extra African-Americans are not included in the total numbers (they never are) - they are only used to make the sub-sample large enough for the black-white comparison. This is a very standard procedure when you went to compare sub-groups and one is too small for its portion of the overall sample to be able to make statistically significant claims. Again, the oversample of African-Americans *is not* included in the total, its only used for the comparison. This is also why you mistakenly thought they only polled 15 Hispanics, b/c maybe half of the blacks sampled were not included in the grand total.

All you have do is some simple math to figure this out - 786 white out of a sample of 1,160, or 68%. Compare this to the census number of a little over 65%, its right where it should be.

"All you have do is some simple math to figure this out - 786 white out of a sample of 1,160, or 68%"

I don't care about the census number, Joe. Use their numbers "The sample also includes 259 interviews among African-Americans"

That's 22% blacks and when it comes time to vote, they don't come close to that (11-13%). If they want to post it on a social sciences site, fine. But it's misleading on a political site. I could care less about what any group of people who sit home on their asses and don't even vote think. They elect to not participate in the process. They can take what they get and shut up.

There's a poll called Rasmussen that is totally biased. I don't see you criticising it. If you like it you consider it accurate. If you don't like it it's biased. Who reads this anyway?

Did you read what I wrote? When a poll oversamples it *does not mean* that the extra people they take with are included in the total, they are only used to make subgroup comparisons. CNN polls call people at random, so the total numbers most likely include something like 11-13% African-American and 13-15% Latino. Again, the total sample *is representative* of the population.

Once they have their representative sample and have calculated the numbers you see as 'total' in the poll, they go out and find some more African-Americans so they have a large enough group to make black-white comparisons. That is *the only place* the oversample is used.

You can read their own explanation:
http://www.cnn.com/ALLPOLITICS/1996/polls/FAQ/polling.FAQ.shtml#oversample
"The term comes from the fact that we wind up producing a sample of African-Americans over and above those we have already interviewed as part of the regular sample of respondents."

The poll is no sham, you just don't understand how it works.

I understand that, Joe. I was going by the language I quoted. If that number isn't valid, then they disclosed no percentage of respondents that are black, white or hispanic at all. The final breakdown would be 67W - 22B - 11H/O or something like that. Are you disagreeing?

"The sample also includes 259 interviews among African-Americans"

Yes I am disagreeing. Oversampling is a two step process. First, CNN calls 1,160 people randomly. Because they call them randomly this sample is representative of the overall population, so is something like 65-67 white, 11-13 black, 13-15 Hispanic non-white and 5-10 Asian-American and other. When you look at the poll and see a number labeled 'total' it comes *only* from this representative sample of 1,1600.
The second step is that they want to compare just blacks and whites. They take out the 786 whites and look only at them. They don't have enough blacks from the original sample to make any statistically significant claims so they get some more black respondents *just for this comparison*. This is the oversample. The original 1,160 *does not* include 259 African-Americans. It's probably around half of them.
Again, this is really standard polling procedure when you want to look specifically at the attitudes of a sub-group that is a small part of the overall sample.

Joe,

1) Riehl is claiming that the white number is still too low under the scenario that you have outlined. The percentage of the electorate that was comprised of whites in 2008 was 74%. Of course, CNN is polling all adults and that seems to be the big issue that many conservatives have with "adults" polls. The actual electorate is always more conservative than the "adults" population.

2) It's unclear from the way that CNN worded it that your scenario is how it played it out. I agree that with an "oversample," that probably meant they got too few blacks in the sample. But why wouldn't they "oversample" non-white Hispanics as well considering that they comprise a smaller percentage of the electorate than blacks?

The Fountain,

1) I didn't see Riehl making this point anywhere, but I think its legitimate if the critique is about a preference for a 'likely voter' model. Again, though, Riehl's point as I read it was not about this but rather about the racial makeup of the sample and so far as I can tell it was based on his misunderstanding.

2) It's unclear only if you don't understand how polls work. Oversampling is very common and its easy to find out what it means. I don't think CNN or any other news organization ought to be obliged to explain fundamental and ubiquitous polling procedures every time they report some poll. To your point, they don't oversample Hispanics because they aren't looking at Hispanic specific attitudes. As I wrote several times above, the oversample of African-Americans *is not* part of the 'total' numbers. They are *only* used to make the black category large enough to produce the numbers in the rows labeled 'black.' There is no Hispanic comparison group, so no need to oversample.

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